As originally posted in the Aurora shooting thread, I found two interesting lists: guns per capita for a bunch of countries and firearm-related homicides per capita by country. It occurred to me that seeking a measure of the correlation between these two sets of numbers might reveal something interesting about the need for greater gun control. If the number of guns present in a society correlated strongly with the number of gun homicides, that would be a good indication that gun control, if successful in reducing the total number of firearms per capita, might result in a reduction in gun homicides.
Correlation is not causation, but direct causation isn't really the issue here. No one is going to argue that a gun, in and of itself, causes a homicide. The causal presumption is that when the circumstances for a violent attack exist, the ready availability of a gun, which is obviously related to the number of guns in existence, will increase the likelihood of said attack being made with a gun, and thus being, on average, more lethal than non-gun attacks.
No one would argue that the relative availability of guns would be the only factor influencing the number of gun-related homicides in a nation, nor even, I would think, that availability was an overwhelmingly central and critical factor. But a positive correlation would, I think, constitute a prima facie case for seeing availability as a factor. It would be important to know if it's a factor because among all possible and likely factors, some will be easier than others to influence if and as we try to bring down gun homicide rates. It might be harder to change various cultural factors than to change gun control laws.
On the other hand, if we find that among the nations of the world there is little or no correlation between the number of guns per capita in the society and the rate per capita of shooting deaths, we might very well conclude that trying to limit the number of total guns via legislation/enforcement is a blind alley - the wrong solution.
Do I have you all on tenterhooks, waiting breathlessly to see that correlation coefficient?
First the raw data, in a new post, so one or more of you can check my math.
Correlation is not causation, but direct causation isn't really the issue here. No one is going to argue that a gun, in and of itself, causes a homicide. The causal presumption is that when the circumstances for a violent attack exist, the ready availability of a gun, which is obviously related to the number of guns in existence, will increase the likelihood of said attack being made with a gun, and thus being, on average, more lethal than non-gun attacks.
No one would argue that the relative availability of guns would be the only factor influencing the number of gun-related homicides in a nation, nor even, I would think, that availability was an overwhelmingly central and critical factor. But a positive correlation would, I think, constitute a prima facie case for seeing availability as a factor. It would be important to know if it's a factor because among all possible and likely factors, some will be easier than others to influence if and as we try to bring down gun homicide rates. It might be harder to change various cultural factors than to change gun control laws.
On the other hand, if we find that among the nations of the world there is little or no correlation between the number of guns per capita in the society and the rate per capita of shooting deaths, we might very well conclude that trying to limit the number of total guns via legislation/enforcement is a blind alley - the wrong solution.
Do I have you all on tenterhooks, waiting breathlessly to see that correlation coefficient?

First the raw data, in a new post, so one or more of you can check my math.