In college, back when it was possible to do so in a short period of time, I had to read The Prince for a political philosophy class. Since I was far more amused by Machiavelli than by John Stuart Mill and Karl Marx, I've begun to flip through it again (fortunately it's a a short book, like 80 pages at most).
And it got me wondering what exactly makes a ruler or leader a "good" one anyway? And since I apparently know little about democracy, let's not restrict ourselves to it (or ignore it either). There are a lot of countries in the world (over 190 in the UN) and, without actually counting them, a good majority of them are probably not democracies by the standards of the "western" or "developed" worlds.
So if we ask ourselves is a particular ruler or leader a "good" one, can we see it is based on effectiveness? But how do we mean "effective"; like one who has completed the political agenda (s)he set out to do? Because otherwise, could you not say that Adolph Hitler was at least a partially-effective ruler? After all, he succeeded in more or less wiping out a good deal of the Jewish, Roma, homosexuals, and other peoples he set out to liquidate, not to mention his political opponents, in concentration camps; which, we must admit, even with the most extreme regret, was part of Hitler's political agenda: to wipe out a shitload of the "enemies" of the God-chosen, Nordic, German People. The other part of his agenda, restore Germany to "greatness" (which is another debate, what is "greatness" for a nation?) failed, but only eventually, and only because the military might of the Allied forces ground Germany's "greatness" to a crashing halt (at great cost, I might add). Maybe, then, the word "effective" ought to necessitate a moral or ethical standard of some sort, but does it, typically?
However, does a "good" ruler's agenda, by which (s)he can be found to be so good at successfully completing, have to be a "good" agenda in the first place? (Again, we're talking moral, ethical and/or beneficial to the ruler's people.) And we must ask ourselves if good, as Chancellor Palpatine said to Annakin Skywalker, is merely a point of view or not. (Though it would be beneficial to us not to get bogged down in a discussion on the nature of truth, or whether it's relative or constant, and whatnot.)
Machiavelli's point of view was that a ruler should be capable, and have "virtue". He used the medieval Italian word "virtu"; but his meaning seems to have been what I suggested: he was an "effective" ruler, and to him, "good government" seems to have meant that the ruler was capable enough to actually maintain law and order in his state (after all, "political freedom" is no good when you do not have the freedom to walk down the street and go about your own business without being mugged or raped, right?)
And even if we do go down the ethical/moral road in order to seek our "good" ruler, can we allow a little leeway for the particular kind of state in question or the character of the particular region on Earth? Some parts of the world cannot be run so morally and ethically because of the inherent disorder within them (for example, Tito's Yugoslavia and other ethnically Balkanized regions of the world whose people have had personal vendettas for centuries and, lacking a "strong" ruler, they'd be at each others' throats in a nanosecond). And of course, different cultures have different needs, requiring different rulers and therefore standards of rule....or do they?
So how do we judge a ruler as a good or virtuous one? Does that depend only on our own ideas of what virtue and good are? Or even just our own ideas of effectiveness and ineptitude? Or maybe at the end of the day, it means nothing more than how well---or just how long---a ruler can cling onto power. Do we abandon the shackles of morality and ethics and fly high and fast into the realm of pragmatism, or do we cling to what we hold dear, even if there are countries in which other people don't.
And it got me wondering what exactly makes a ruler or leader a "good" one anyway? And since I apparently know little about democracy, let's not restrict ourselves to it (or ignore it either). There are a lot of countries in the world (over 190 in the UN) and, without actually counting them, a good majority of them are probably not democracies by the standards of the "western" or "developed" worlds.
So if we ask ourselves is a particular ruler or leader a "good" one, can we see it is based on effectiveness? But how do we mean "effective"; like one who has completed the political agenda (s)he set out to do? Because otherwise, could you not say that Adolph Hitler was at least a partially-effective ruler? After all, he succeeded in more or less wiping out a good deal of the Jewish, Roma, homosexuals, and other peoples he set out to liquidate, not to mention his political opponents, in concentration camps; which, we must admit, even with the most extreme regret, was part of Hitler's political agenda: to wipe out a shitload of the "enemies" of the God-chosen, Nordic, German People. The other part of his agenda, restore Germany to "greatness" (which is another debate, what is "greatness" for a nation?) failed, but only eventually, and only because the military might of the Allied forces ground Germany's "greatness" to a crashing halt (at great cost, I might add). Maybe, then, the word "effective" ought to necessitate a moral or ethical standard of some sort, but does it, typically?
However, does a "good" ruler's agenda, by which (s)he can be found to be so good at successfully completing, have to be a "good" agenda in the first place? (Again, we're talking moral, ethical and/or beneficial to the ruler's people.) And we must ask ourselves if good, as Chancellor Palpatine said to Annakin Skywalker, is merely a point of view or not. (Though it would be beneficial to us not to get bogged down in a discussion on the nature of truth, or whether it's relative or constant, and whatnot.)
Machiavelli's point of view was that a ruler should be capable, and have "virtue". He used the medieval Italian word "virtu"; but his meaning seems to have been what I suggested: he was an "effective" ruler, and to him, "good government" seems to have meant that the ruler was capable enough to actually maintain law and order in his state (after all, "political freedom" is no good when you do not have the freedom to walk down the street and go about your own business without being mugged or raped, right?)
And even if we do go down the ethical/moral road in order to seek our "good" ruler, can we allow a little leeway for the particular kind of state in question or the character of the particular region on Earth? Some parts of the world cannot be run so morally and ethically because of the inherent disorder within them (for example, Tito's Yugoslavia and other ethnically Balkanized regions of the world whose people have had personal vendettas for centuries and, lacking a "strong" ruler, they'd be at each others' throats in a nanosecond). And of course, different cultures have different needs, requiring different rulers and therefore standards of rule....or do they?
So how do we judge a ruler as a good or virtuous one? Does that depend only on our own ideas of what virtue and good are? Or even just our own ideas of effectiveness and ineptitude? Or maybe at the end of the day, it means nothing more than how well---or just how long---a ruler can cling onto power. Do we abandon the shackles of morality and ethics and fly high and fast into the realm of pragmatism, or do we cling to what we hold dear, even if there are countries in which other people don't.