I had stated in my last post on the thread about the show House of Cards the differences between parliamentary and presidential democracy, and how exactly they could be corrupted and/or usurped by likes of the Distinguished Rep. Francis Underwood (D-SC), or The Right Honourable Francis Urquhart, M.P.; both their party's chief whips in the United States and the United Kingdom, respectively.
My original major was Political Science (until I woke up and changed my major to Business Technology Administration--I did not want my degree to permit me the dignity of asking "would you like fries with that" for the rest of my life) and I concentrated it in international relations and comparative politics courses. Yet, the subjects still fascinate me, even if most other peoples' eyes glaze over. I'm mostly trying to GATHER MORE INFORMATION by posting this thread. I certainly did not learn everything in just a few classes and I hoped that some of you could help me, if you can bear with me for a few moments, here!
I thank our Great Redscape Cousins from Across the Sea [a Churchillism I couldn't resist] for their explanations to me so far. It has been invaluable!
Now, I understand that it is no longer as easy to get rid of a party leader in the UK Conservative Party as it was back during the "bloodless coup" against Prime Minister/Conservative leader Margaret Thatcher. And in Labour, it's a lot more difficult, time consuming and....complicated...from what you have said in the aforementioned thread. I didn't understand some of it but no matter I'll read it again, and if I still do not understand it, move on. I normally do understand this stuff.
I understand the basic differences between Parliamentary and Presidential democracies. The $64,000 question (or L64,000...or e64,000...) is, have both our systems--both presidential democracy in the United States, and parliamentary democracy not only in the UK but other countries--in some way corrupted from their "original intent" (or in the UK, the traditional procedures under Britain's largely unwritten constitution)?
As we know, the main difference is fusion of powers (parliamentary) versus separation of powers (presidential). In a presidential democracy, specifically in the United States Constitution [of 1787, as amended] the President is not supposed to make the law. He may recommend laws to Congress. He can even prevent a possible law (a bill from Congress) from coming into being. But, at the end of the day, he cannot actually make the law. That is the exclusive province or bailiwick, whatever, of Congress.
In reality, it's that veto power--which contrary to popular belief among non-Americans is NOT necessarily final, there is an "override" (veto the veto) power Congress has but it's not always possible to get enough votes to do it--combined with the fact that he can recommend laws to Congress which has allowed the Office of the President to meddle in legislation in ways it should not. The Affordable Health Care Act is called Obamacare because it was his brainchild (if one wants to use the word "brain" in that one). Never, ever, would there have been such a thing in the early republic as "Adams-o-Care" or a "Fillmore-o-Deport-Em-Act" (Fillmore was quite anti-immigration and anti-Catholic). President Washington only ever vetoed bills he considered to be "unconstitutional" in nature. The Alien & Sedition Acts signed by John Adams were not really his creation but that of the Federalists in Congress and, if you believe the HBO series, he was dithering on approving it until Abigail conned him into singing it.
I do firmly believe that even parliamentary democracies are not as "collegial" as advertised. The reason for the quasi-corruption of the U.S. Constitution of 1787 [as amended] is that power seems to consolidate. Has the same thing happened on the other side of the pond, or north of the 48th parallel, or down under?
My original major was Political Science (until I woke up and changed my major to Business Technology Administration--I did not want my degree to permit me the dignity of asking "would you like fries with that" for the rest of my life) and I concentrated it in international relations and comparative politics courses. Yet, the subjects still fascinate me, even if most other peoples' eyes glaze over. I'm mostly trying to GATHER MORE INFORMATION by posting this thread. I certainly did not learn everything in just a few classes and I hoped that some of you could help me, if you can bear with me for a few moments, here!
I thank our Great Redscape Cousins from Across the Sea [a Churchillism I couldn't resist] for their explanations to me so far. It has been invaluable!
Now, I understand that it is no longer as easy to get rid of a party leader in the UK Conservative Party as it was back during the "bloodless coup" against Prime Minister/Conservative leader Margaret Thatcher. And in Labour, it's a lot more difficult, time consuming and....complicated...from what you have said in the aforementioned thread. I didn't understand some of it but no matter I'll read it again, and if I still do not understand it, move on. I normally do understand this stuff.

I understand the basic differences between Parliamentary and Presidential democracies. The $64,000 question (or L64,000...or e64,000...) is, have both our systems--both presidential democracy in the United States, and parliamentary democracy not only in the UK but other countries--in some way corrupted from their "original intent" (or in the UK, the traditional procedures under Britain's largely unwritten constitution)?
As we know, the main difference is fusion of powers (parliamentary) versus separation of powers (presidential). In a presidential democracy, specifically in the United States Constitution [of 1787, as amended] the President is not supposed to make the law. He may recommend laws to Congress. He can even prevent a possible law (a bill from Congress) from coming into being. But, at the end of the day, he cannot actually make the law. That is the exclusive province or bailiwick, whatever, of Congress.
In reality, it's that veto power--which contrary to popular belief among non-Americans is NOT necessarily final, there is an "override" (veto the veto) power Congress has but it's not always possible to get enough votes to do it--combined with the fact that he can recommend laws to Congress which has allowed the Office of the President to meddle in legislation in ways it should not. The Affordable Health Care Act is called Obamacare because it was his brainchild (if one wants to use the word "brain" in that one). Never, ever, would there have been such a thing in the early republic as "Adams-o-Care" or a "Fillmore-o-Deport-Em-Act" (Fillmore was quite anti-immigration and anti-Catholic). President Washington only ever vetoed bills he considered to be "unconstitutional" in nature. The Alien & Sedition Acts signed by John Adams were not really his creation but that of the Federalists in Congress and, if you believe the HBO series, he was dithering on approving it until Abigail conned him into singing it.
I do firmly believe that even parliamentary democracies are not as "collegial" as advertised. The reason for the quasi-corruption of the U.S. Constitution of 1787 [as amended] is that power seems to consolidate. Has the same thing happened on the other side of the pond, or north of the 48th parallel, or down under?