danivon wrote:You posted a link to an op-ed on the ruling, which to be honest I skimmed over because it was mainly argument rather than fact. Because you had asked me for the political make-up of the panel, I decided the definitive source for that would be the ruling itself. It also helps that the document shows exactly what they said, not 'interpretations' from one side of the debate or the other.
The op-ed I linked to had the link to the decision embedded in it. Additionally, the guy who wrote the blog worked at Justice before quitting over the rampant racism of the Department under Holder.
Your challenge to freeman on (1) and (2) is risible, by the way. The second is clearly evidenced by Texas being included in the 1965 Act that they fell foul of in the judgment. If Texas did not have a history of disenfranchising blacks, there would be no need to have had a law passed to stop them doing it. Perhaps you missed out on the history of the Civil Rights movement in the South and what they were trying to overturn, but it is definitely not made up just to suit today's arguments on voting ID. The Voting Rights Act is a pretty clear indicator.
Your argumentation here is risible.
It was freeman2 who said the law was "partisan." He gave no evidence for that. I simply responded with a partisan law--one that had zero GOP votes--and asked if that was also discriminatory?
That's not risible and you're being a bit of something other than genius.
Nearly 50 years ago a law was passed. In perpetuity, Texas must prove that any changes it makes are not racist.
Why? Most of the people who were responsible for discrimination when the law was passed are dead. Is there evidence that Texas is the same place it was in 1965?