freeman2 wrote:The problem with these laws is discriminatory intent.
Misleading.
The current standard is that southern
States have to prove they DID NOT intend to discriminate, which is pretty much an impossible standard.
Today, the three-judge panel ruled that Texas failed to prove the absence of any discriminatory effect with Voter ID. Judge David Tatel (Clinton appointee), writing for the court, and joined by Judge Rosemary Collyer (Bush 43) and Judge Robert Wilkins (Obama), determined that Texas could not prove the absence of a discriminatory effect.
It is notable that the court declined to rule on DOJ’s efforts to paint Texas as purposefully racist in passing voter ID. Tens of thousands of your tax dollars were spent in that quest, as they are now being spent to prove that South Carolina remains an enclave of Klan-like racism in the voter-ID trial taking place this week.
The court adopted reasoning rejected by other federal courts, such as the 9th Circuit Court of Appeals: “Importantly, it costs money to obtain any of these documents. This means that EIC applicants — i.e., would-be voters — who possess none of these underlying forms of identification will have to bear out-of-pocket costs.”
Discriminatory intent is shown by: (1) partisan nature of the laws,
So then, Obamacare is discriminatory? After all, it was completely partisan.
(2) little or no showing of voter fraud,
There's little or no actual evidence of voter suppression either. Of course, detecting voter fraud without requiring ID . . . that's easy, right?
(3) a surge of these laws recently being passed, and (4) little time for these laws to be implemented before the election.
How many years does it take to get an ID?
How do you get a Medicare card, apply for welfare, or get unemployment without ID? If ID is not required there, should we be surprised to find fraud in those programs?
Since it is clear that Republicans are passing these laws to reduce voter totals then judges are going to search for any impediment on voting, particularly in states that have a history of voter disenfranchisment (Texas has that history).
You assume two points here that you have not proven:
1. Intent of these laws.
2. Texas' history of "voter disenfranchisement."
Feel free to PROVE them.