Is the formatting of this ok, RJ (it is a bit long...)?
Ok, so, Ricky is digging in his hole and working from the wrong place. Proving that ‘Palestine’ existed as a known place does not prove that the concept of ‘Palestinians’ did. You need more. Perhaps a distinct dialect. Perhaps common ancestry. Perhaps more stuff going back further than the 1960s.
So, starting from the very sketchy base point of the wikipedia article
Palestinian People, let’s see what we may be able to find.
Well, Arabs in Israel/Palestine do apparently speak a different dialect of Arabic. The difference is more marked in rural areas (which is probably more significant, as rural populations are less likely to have been influenced by external contact or recent trends). In the urban population it is more like the other Levantine dialects. This difference is not the same one as that for Israeli Arabs who (in addition to using the dialect) have come to borrow words from Hebrew over recent decades. I can’t see evidence that the Palestinian dialect is of a particular age, but it’s not usual for them to spring up in a very short space of time. Certainly there were studies into the dialect by German linguists around 80-90 years ago, as referenced at the start of the description of this more recent study:
http://seeger.uni-hd.de/english/ramalla_e.htmSecondly, on the common ancestry front, the Nebel study of 2000 showed considerable genetic overlap between Arabs living in Israel and Palestine, Askhenazim and Sephardim. Bedouins are more distinct, it would seem. This fits with the historical narrative of conversion of the local populace from Judaism, Christianity and other religions to Islam after the 7th Century conquest, rather than a population movement of Arabs from elsewhere.
And what else?
Well, it’s clear that all Arabic national identities are also bound up in pan-Arabism, which complicates the question of whether there was an identity before 1948. There is also a lot of debate among academics, with some suggesting that that the Mufti of 1670 was outlining social distinctions between ‘Filestin’ and al_Sham (Syria) in his religious edicts. The 1834 revolt in Palestine was against recent Egyptian conquerors of southern ‘Syria’ and led by supporters of the Ottomans, and so can’t really be seen as an expression of Palestinian identity. However, some (Baruch Kimmerling, Joel Migdal) suggest that it was influential in forming one afterwards. The Ottomans took the area back in the 1840s, but a couple of generations later, in the 1880s, they reorganised the subdivisions of Syria, with Lebanon and Jerusalem becoming more autonomous, and the leaderships more local in flavour.
While in the 1910s the wider Arab movement were attempting independence for all Arabia, there were also local movements in Palestine calling for national independence. Some were pan-Arabist in intent (others religious), but again the picture is complex. We have to remember that the area had many more Christians than most other Arab lands, and the Lebanese Christians and Druze had a distinct common identity that was already in place and which excluded their counterparts to the South. So whether or not there was a conscious identity, or if there was how widespread it may have been, there was certainly a difference about the people of the area to their neighbours.
We might look to someone like Daniel Pipes to support Gingrich. He’s the right wing academic and outspoken anti-liberal who wrote in an article for the Jerusalem Post 11 years ago, called “
The Year the Arabs Discovered Palestine”. He argues that with a single year, the people of Palestine had, due to the facts on the ground, decided to work within that framework rather than a wider Arab one. What year was he talking about? It was not 1967, following the defeat of the Arabs. It was not 1948 when Israel was formed. It was not even 1936 when the British quelled a major revolt. The article was talking about 1920, the year of the Mandate.
Daniel Pipes wrote:In fact, the Palestinian identity goes back, not to antiquity, but precisely to 1920. No "Palestinian Arab people" existed at the start of 1920 but by December it took shape in a form recognizably similar to today's.
Can we say for definite that the Palestinian identity stretches back much more than a century? No. Can we say (as Gingrich did) that it only goes back about 50 years? No. The reality is probably somewhere in between. I’m reluctant to agree with Daniel Pipes, what with him being the kind of guy who calls for witch hunts on campus and issues dog-whistle warnings on immigration to Europe, but I would say that the case he makes for 1920 is likely to be more solid than the one Gingrich makes for a later year. And he's not really looking to give the Palestinians much credence, reading that article.
In this sense it is not much different from many of the asserted national identities of the many African nations that were formed from administrative subdivisions of late 19th Century empires and became independent in the post WWII period. We can argue that some (or many) of those countries are artificial and that the people in them are divided tribally (and often those divisions transcend national boundaries) or on religious lines. So in that small sense Gingrich is right. But that would suggest that Palestine as a nation has about the same legitimacy as, for example, Uganda or Niger. Which is to say more than he implies with his statement
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You see, it does not take much, just wandering about in wikipedia and (crucially) spot checking the references, to show that Newt is wrong to be so definite. As you have said, Ray Jay, he is also probably wrong to say things which will just wind people up in a tense location. It may, however, be politically beneficial for him domestically and in the short term, as it will play to the evangelist audience (who backed Perry and may be askance about his conversion to Catholicism and his track record on marriage) as well as winding up liberals who will by their very agitated state make great targets for the right.
Which is the source of my sadness. It’s bad enough that Israel/Palestine is a political football in Israel and Palestine and neighbouring countries. But it is now an issue that has become intertwined with the US domestic political scene, as if Jerusalem is a stop on the trail just like Iowa and New Hampshire. In that sense we can forgive Gingrich a little, because all he was doing is what venal politicians do – playing to a particular crowd in order to gain support.