Rudewalrus - thanks for explaining. A shame that DF seems more interested in opposing for the sake of it.
I was asking what was meant by the expression that disability was not intended to be welfare. Of course, what I didn't realise is that DF actually meant "Disability" and "Welfare", and in those specifically only the actual programmes.
The reason I cited a dictionary is that I was explaining my interpretation of the non-proper noun "welfare". As far as I am concerned, programmes that are set up to provide an income for people who are disabled are a form of welfare. To take the specific programme names, and to pretend that they are a synecdoche for the concepts seems to me to be beyond the point.
So the bit -
Rudewalrus wrote:If Danivon is arguing (and I believe he is) that Disability IS a welfare program, then here is the consequence if he is correct:
Disability has become a welfare program (It always was one);
It's not supposed to serve that function (yes it is);
Is precisely what I was working up to, based on my understanding of the meaning of the word "welfare". But this part:
Rudewalrus wrote:Therefore, there is something wrong with it that should be fixed (therefore there is nothing wrong with it that requires fixing).
Is not what I meant, and is itself not logical. There may very well be things, indeed many things, that need fixing, but it being 'welfare' is not one of them.
And DF, that very awareness that when I used that word, I used it in the dictionary sense, and that when some people use the words, they act like Lewis Carroll's Walrus and decide that they can declare that it means something else, or only some very specific and American (and bound up in US politics to boot) usage of the word, is why I started by asking you a question. Which you at first ignored and then mocked.
Like I say, ungenerous. Especially as when I asked the second time I added (and this is the bit you excised when replying in your snotty and superior manner):"Is it down to another one of these things where American usage changes the meaning of a word?"
All you needed to do was to say "Yes" and explain why without trying to make out I'm an idiot. I just don't speak American partisan politics as fluently as you do. Thankfully.
Anyway, on to of that post was the most mean-spirited and false:
Here's part of your reply:
Doctor Fate wrote:You asserted many things. You proved none. I don't have to bat down every cockamamie explanation you give for which you adduce no evidence. For example:
Secondly, the risks are greater in the older working age population, and the USA is seeing a statistical bulge of those due to the baby boom ending about 50 years ago.
So, that would explain this? [link to article discussing a 20% jump in invalidity between 2007-2012]
So, here's my problem. I did not at any point in my post claim that all of the four factors I mentioned would explain all of the rise. Let alone just the one of them (as you imply by only quoting one of them).
What is more, I started the post with this: "It is not completely bizarre to see an increase in invalidity." which does not mean the same thing as you infer, that I seek to explain all of the increase.
And further, after the four areas I mentioned, the very next sentence was "Does all that add up to a 25% increase?
I don't know, probably not." (bolding added) Thus, clearly, I never said that any (and not even all) of the points I raised would explain all of the increase - and indeed I actually stated that I doubt that all combined would. So, to suggest that I was implying that the Baby Boom would explain all of a particular rise is a Straw Man.
If you misread my post (ironic since at the same you wrote about a 'reading license'), then fair enough, I will accept a retraction and apology. However, if you read it properly, that would make your words a deliberate lie. I will generously assume the former.
Also, you called my suggestions 'cockamamie', and derided the idea that you could deign to respond to them, due to me not providing evidence.
To summarise, the reasons I was positing were:
1. People with disabilities can get better care than before, meaning they are more likely to live for longer, which would increase the number of people with a legitimate claim over time. If you want me to provide evidence, I will do so if asked in a less obnoxious manner, but I would expect that you would at the very least realise that this is not an unreasonable hypothesis.
2. Older people are at greater risk of becoming disabled. The Baby Boom generation are now in that age range. I hope you don't expect me to provide evidence for the Baby Boom, DF, and I would expect any reasonable person to understand that age is a factor in the risk of developing a disability. Again, if you want a proper discussion, rather than to win some stupid semantic argument or battle of wills, ask with a bit less arrogance and I'll see what evidence I can find.
3. Poorer diets and a more sedentary lifestyle and work life may make disability more likely, as low muscle-tone, greater weight, weaker bones etc would be factors. If you want me to find some evidence, you only need ask without the snide remarks.
4. Better diagnosis, and less reluctance to claim. Both are different, but are about people presenting and being accepted, who are perfectly valid claimants, but who may not have done in the past. Again, I don't think this is in any way an outrageous proposition. And again, I can see what I can find to show what the effect of this is over time, if you would lower yourself to ask rather than to apply your recent behaviour - ignore, dismiss, ridicule...
Sure, I put forward some suggestions as to why
an increase is not completely bizarre (another, of course, is that if you are comparing raw numbers of claimants, the US population has risen, but I figure that goes without saying, right? If not, consider that number 5).
It speaks volumes that you would rather attack me for daring to come up with some other factors, than to discuss them like a grown up.