Doctor Fate wrote:JimHackerMP wrote:It is an invitation to future Courts to invent more rights.
PS: Has it ever occurred to you that people said precisely the same thing in the 1960s, especially in the South, after Brown v. Board of Education, and other Supreme Court cases that dealt with the Civil Rights movement?
Has it ever occurred to you to take the test I'm suggesting Justice Kennedy take? Line up 100 people, some white, some black, some gay, some straight, then see how many you can correctly guess. In other words, can you identify black v. white by appearance? Good for you--it means you have eyesight. Can you identify gay v. straight by appearance?
This is a very simplistic look at discrimination. You could line up 100 people who were outwardly fine, but some had mental conditions. Just because a visual check does not identify them does not mean that other means can't be used to do so, or that they cannot be unlawfully discriminated against.
Now, that's simple, but the implications are not. When a black person walks in and is discriminated against, there was a default switch at work. When a homosexual walks in, he/she cannot be discriminated against until/unless he/she/undecided makes an issue of their sexuality.
By having the cheek to ask for a cake for their gay wedding, perchance? That's a pretty good indicator of sexuality, I reckon.
The Court took upon itself the redefinition of a word that has had one meaning in Western Civilization. That is beyond the scope of its duties.
Are you saying that none of the following countries are not part of "Western Civilisation"? Because they all already had legally recognised gay marriage before the USSC ruled:
The Netherlands, Belgium, Spain, Canada, South Africa, Norway, Sweden, Portugal, Iceland, Argentina, Denmark, Brazil, France, Uruguay, New Zealand, UK (except Northern Ireland), Luxembourg.
And so if any one of them
is in "Western Civilisation", then you are incorrect - the "one definition" did not have universal exclusive meaning.
So either explain why each one of those countries is not part of "Western Civilisation", or accept that your assertion has been called out.
Of course, it is within the scope of the USSC's duties to recognise the rights of the people (all of them, not just the ones you agree with) as opposed to the powers of government.
So, here's a Constitutional question for you:
Where does the Constitution give the government power to ban any types of marriage?
If you'd bothered to read, I said they could have come to much the same decision without overstepping their power. They could have said this was a State issue, but that every State would have to honor a marriage lawfully performed in another State. The effect would have been the same, but it would not have opened Pandora's box.
And they would be wrong. I am sick of the silly argument that human rights should be applied at local levels. They should apply to all humans, and be agreed at the highest level possible.
The right to marry exists
Created by USSC
Yes, but not that recently. It was already established by
Loving v Virginia. But even if you've discounted the application of that ruling, there are older ones on the right to marriage. Indeed, the history of the USSC asserting a right to marriage dates back to 1888, in Maynard v Hill -
http://www.afer.org/blog/14-supreme-cou ... tal-right/