From several posts...
I do not claim that the law sets morality. Quite the reverse - the law often (but not always, and sometimes at a lag or ahead of time) reflects the prevailing view of morality.
That is indeed a change in the law. If it was not significant, why was it so controversial?
We are debating marriage, and it's definition. You talk about the moral definition (which it is clear is actually the Christian definition, as you see it), and are debating how that differs from the legal definition.Doctor Fate wrote:Then maybe I don't understand. I have been declining to engage in a debate over Christian morality. It is an utter waste of time. It is Danivon who keeps wanting to debate it.
The only person who I have seen come close to suggesting this, and mainly in other contexts, is bbauska, mainly in that what is not legal is also wrong to do (but if it is legal, then there's not a moral problem, as long as you want to do it).The law is the law. However, the law does not define morality. If that were the case, I would have to agree that abortion is moral. I would have to agree that adultery, pornography, and any number of other sins are moral. I don't.
I can obey the law and not view it as the definition of morality. I'm not surprised that others may want to invert that--it's their right and I won't debate that.
I do not claim that the law sets morality. Quite the reverse - the law often (but not always, and sometimes at a lag or ahead of time) reflects the prevailing view of morality.
There is indeed a new legal position. Before the USSC ruling, the Federal State effectively imposed a ban on recognising gay marriage, and allowing gay marrages the same rights as heterosexual marriage. Now that is no longer the case, it seems that States (or other jurisdictions, if allowed) can fully implement gay marriage that has to be recognised for the up to 1100 provisions which apply Federally.First, since your hobby is to pick at nits, there is no "new legal position." No one has declared that homosexual marriage is the law of the land from sea to shining sea.
That is indeed a change in the law. If it was not significant, why was it so controversial?