Purple
Not proven. First: get better data on the efficiency of private charity, then also get some reliable numbers for governmental efficiency. Then show that the measures can be expressed in equivalent (i.e. amenable to comparison) terms. I don't know if this is an impossible task, but I bet it's a really difficult one - the kind of thing you might work on for your PhD. All I know for sure is that your unsubstantiated opinion or gut feeling isn't worth much. I'm not saying you're wrong, merely that you've not really come very close to substantiating your assertion.
First Purple: My main assertion is that Charity isn’t more effective or efficient…Let’s start with efficient:
I grant you that “efficient “ is a real tough sled. But certainly the evidence suggests it isn’t remarkably efficient. And the evidence you offer to counter my evidence is well short of conclusive.
purple
Your evidence is based on 6 out of 50 states and only those charities (probably smaller ones) that use outside fundraisers.
And yet you’ve chosen a list that is 2/100th of 1% of the country’s 1.2 million tax-exempt organizations. (And 1/7th of total recorded donations, or 14% of total donations.) Compared to sample of 12% of states…. The sample sizes are fairly equivalent. You can say the states are different. I can say, there’s probably a helluva big difference once you get below the top 200.
I’ll also remind you that a significant portion of allowable deductions for charity go to causes and purposes that should not, in my personal view, be funded out of tax dollars. Indeed your list doesn't include them in its analysis on purpose.
(Deductions for charitable giving being essentially money transferred from taxation revenues). What are those purposes? Football stadiums at Universities, money provided to spread religion or build religious edifices… I think it can be easily argued that 100% of
those monies are inefficient uses. (At the same time, granted, you can raise the issue of tax money being funnelled to NFL teams to build stadiums too…. )
All in all, if we agree that charitable works, that we can agree are charitable, are only moving 2/3 of the money they raise to the purpose … it does discredit the idea that charities are paragons of efficiency. And I'll admit proving government efficiency is above this is probably too difficult.
But the second part of the equation is effectiveness:
Is government directed money more effective? Consider here that the problem is that tax dollars aren’t supporting just people in need. They support the entire infrastructure that society depends upon. If by redirecting taxation from general revenue to private charities you affect the ability of government to maintain the infrastructure without going into deficit, the question becomes: What’s more important, the target of the charitable work OR the infrastructure that has built the economy?
Is it effective to take money away from the maintenance of interstate highway bridges, so that a religion can build some new churches? Or that a particular cancer research centre gets a new wing?
Those kinds of anecdotal arguments won’t add much to the argument. However we can look at the question of effectiveness from a macro sense: Let us take one particular case,
the war on poverty. Many on the right talk about the War on Poverty as a complete waste of taxpayers’ money.
Poverty was measured at 22.4% in 1959, and reached a 1973 low of 11.1 percent. That low point came after President Lyndon Johnson’s war on poverty, launched in 1964, that created Medicaid, Medicare and other social welfare programs.
source:
http://www.washingtonpost.com/business/ ... story.htmlLet’s assume that charitable reciept often ends for most (if we count only money going to improve the lot of the abject poor or disadvantaged) when they rise up out of poverty. That would mean that more than half (22.4 to 11.1) of the population that were characterized as poor had risen from poverty in just over a decade. . I’ll claim that as a general efficectiveness that charitable works cannot claim.
Charitable giving has never affected the rate of poverty to this extent. How do we know? Wasn’t charity the main source of support for the abject poor prior to the earliest attempts at socialization? (I believe the earliest thing that could be called social spending in the US was in 1792 when a hospital was opened to provide medical care for indigent sailors. The first instance of socialized medicine in the US) However I think it’s safe to say that broadly based programs really only go back to FDR, and no concerted effort at reducing poverty existed till Johnson.
purple
You conclude your post with a comparison, but have presented evidence for only one half of the equation. Does the US Government do better than the 67% or worse?
Is it more effective? I'll say yes. And in general more government spending creates better outcomes than more charitable spending. Evidence?
Charitable giving is much greater in the US than in Norway or Sweden.
The rate of poverty in the US is now around 15%
In 2002 in Sweden: 6.4% is the poverty rate… (see linked 2002 data)
http://www.ccsd.ca/pubs/2002/olympic/indicators.htmThe difference? Not so much on charity. Much more through government programs.
Charity isn’t as effective as eradicating poverty as government spending.
And Purple, I'm not trying to paint all charities with a broad brush. However, broadly, dependence on charity has not been as effective as well run government programs.
If it were, since charity was all there was for many centuries, there would have been no need for enlightened governments to attempt to solve the problems if charity had worked.