rickyp wrote:bbauska
That is quite a reach, RickyP. Then again, you haven't been much of a literalist when it came to the US Constitution either
well, I didn't refer to the bible as a justification for any view I have. I referred to it to illustrate that there are Christians who use three NT verses to illustrate Jesus acceptance of Homosexuals and homosexual relationships.
I think the Bible offers enough ambiguity and enough variety that it has been used to support great evils, Slavery, racial discrimination and the subjagation of women... War too.
Apparently even the NT.
No. Wrong. It is not ambiguous IF one takes the time to study it. Of course, if one is satisfied to merely reference some guy as claiming the Bible says something, then anything goes.
I note that Fate didn't respond to this.
Actually, I did. Let me help you. I cut and pasted all the verses. Then I wrote:
I just read Ashford's "explanation."
In reality, it is all supposition. He makes no appeal to the context, explains no nuance of the Greek, he just presumes that if one man cares for another, they must be homosexuals.
So, I suppose to Ashford, when a good friend of mine died last year after I spent a good deal of time with him in the hospital, even helping as he was being rolled over to alleviate some of his pain, that must have meant we were homosexuals. See, I cared about him and he was a man, therefore . . .
Ashford is making stuff up out of whole cloth.
A strong indication that Jesus, if he is quoted correctly, was all for acceptance of homosexuals.
Dude, you're killing it. The word "homosexual" isn't present. Nor is there any indication of homosexuality. It's all in Ashford's fertile imagination.
Verse 11,12: “Jesus replied, 'Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given. For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it'
Oh brother. Let's put it in context:
(Matt. 19:3-12) And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by asking, "Is it lawful to divorce one's wife for any cause?"
4 He answered, "Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female,
5 and said, 'Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'?
6 So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate."
7 They said to him, "Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?"
8 He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery."
10 The disciples said to him, "If such is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry."
11 But he said to them, "Not everyone can receive this saying, but only those to whom it is given.
12 For there are eunuchs who have been so from birth, and there are eunuchs who have been made eunuchs by men, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Let the one who is able to receive this receive it."
So, what is the context? Oh, it's about heterosexual marriage (i.e. the only marriage that exists). The disciples said if they could not divorce except if a wife committed adultery, they thought it better not to marry--in other words, this seemed a high standard to them. Why? Because they had become accustomed to divorcing for ANY cause and this raised the bar substantially.
Verse 12, upon which you appear to be, ahem, hanging your hat, is about celibacy, not homosexuality.
Stick to what you do know--whatever that may be.